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INTRODUCTION

You must pass your state’s CNA test before you get your certificate from your state CNA registry. This section will tell you about the costs, where and when the state test can be taken, and what is on the test. Do NOT get anxious or nervous about the test and what will be tested. You will learn and practice all of these things while you are going to your CNA training course.

HOW MUCH DOES THE STATE TEST COST?

The cost of the state test varies among states. It is minimal in some states and it is more in others. Some states include the costs of initial CNA registration in their fees, some do not. Check your state CNA registry to find the costs and fees of the state test.

WHAT IS ON THE TEST?

The test has 2 parts. One part is the written or oral knowledge part and the other part is the actual performance of certain skills on a mannequin, a “patient actor” or a real patient or resident. You must pass both parts to get your CNA.

WHERE AND WHEN CNA THE TEST BE TAKEN?

There are test locations and testing schedules for all states. Contact your state registry to get more information.

WHAT IS ON THE WRITTEN OR ORAL PART OF THE TEST?

The oral part of the test will have at least 50 multiple choice questions. The choices will be A, B, C, and D. The subjects that on the test can include any or all of the below:

  • The role of the CNA in terms of personal and healthcare team roles and responsibilities
  • Communication and interpersonal relationships
  • Safety and accident prevention
  • Patient comfort
  • Infection control
  • Internal, external and patient related emergencies and disaster
  • The provision of immediate life saving measures
  • Personal care skills
  • Maintaining physical health
  • Independence
  • Self care
  • Psychological needs
  • Social needs
  • Basic nursing care skills that are given by the CNA
  • Observations
  • Reporting
  • Emergency patient situations and symptoms such as cardiac arrest, changes in the person’s level of consciousness, chest pain, bleeding, falls, etc.
  • Common physical problems
  • Common psychological problems
  • Care of the dying person at the end of life

WHAT IS ON THE SKILLS PORTION OF THE TEST

These skills are tested during the second part of the test:

  • Hand Washing
  • Ambulation with and without assistive devices and/or aids like a gait or transfer belt
  • Patient transfers
  • Assistance with toileting
  • Bed making
  • Baths, showers and bed baths
  • Turning and positioning
  • Dressing, including assistance for those with a weak arm or arms
  • Urinary drainage bags, including care, emptying and the measurement of output
  • Urinary catheter care
  • Feeding
  • Vital signs including respiratory rate, radial pulse, blood pressures and temperatures
  • Foot care
  • Mouth care
  • Perineal care
  • Nail care
  • Incontinence care
  • Range of motion

Practice Test

  • 1. Your patient will be getting a complete bed bath. The temperature of the water in the bath basin should be no hotter than:
    • a) 90 degrees F.
    • b) 98 degrees F.
    • c) 100 degrees F.
    • d) 106 degrees F.
  • 2. You have been assigned to shave your male patient’s face. You must wash your hands and ___________ before you shave this patient.
    • a) get help from the nurse
    • b) wear a mask with a shield
    • c) put gloves on both hands
    • d) put a glove on the dominant hand
  • 3. You are caring for a diabetic patient. The person’s toenails need cutting. You should:
    • a) clip them.
    • b) call the doctor.
    • c) report this finding to the nurse.
    • d) call the podiatrist.
  • 4. Caloric needs are greatest among:
    • a) teenagers.
    • b) the elderly.
    • c) school age children.
    • d) night workers.
  • 5. Your patient has finished drinking an 8 ounce container of orange juice. How many cc or ml of juice will you record on the person’s intake and output form?
    • a) 300
    • b) 240
    • c) 120
    • d) 30
  • 6. Patients who are incontinent of stool are at greatest risk for:
    • a) immobility.
    • b) pressure sores.
    • c) isolation.
    • d) falls.
  • 7. Although needs for sleep vary among different people, adults need about __________ hours of sleep daily.
    • a) 4 to 5
    • b) 6 to 7
    • c) 7 to 9
    • d) more than 9
  • 8. A comfortable room temperature for most people is about:
    • a) 78 degrees C.
    • b) 78 degrees F.
    • c) 72 degrees C.
    • d) 72 degrees F.
  • 9. The single most important thing that a CNA can do to prevent the spread of infection is:
    • a) proper hand washing.
    • b) wearing a mask.
    • c) calling in sick when you have a fever.
    • d) getting enough rest.
  • 10. Hand washing must be done:
    • a) before every patient contact.
    • b) before and after every patient contact.
    • c) for at least 8 seconds.
    • d) for at least 10 seconds.
  • 11. Standard precautions apply to:
    • a) all patients and all bodily fluids.
    • b) patient with hepatitis and/or AIDS.
    • c) only nursing personnel.
    • d) people who are at risk for infection.
  • 12. You must don a gown when you:
    • a) enter a patient room.
    • b) you may be exposed to bodily fluids.
    • c) only when you will certainly be exposed to bodily fluids.
    • d) your patient has a fever.
  • 13. You are in the patient room where the doctor will do a special procedure that may lead to splashes and sprays of bodily fluids. You must wear:
    • a) a paper gown.
    • b) sterile gloves.
    • c) eye protection.
    • d) a face shield and eye protection.
  • 14. The FIRST thing you must do if a fire breaks out in a patient room is to:
    • a) use a fire extinguisher.
    • b) pull the fire alarm.
    • c) rescue the patients.
    • d) close the door.
  • 15. Falls can be prevented with:
    • a) low beds.
    • b) gym mats near the bed.
    • c) side rails.
    • d) bed and chair alarms.
  • 16. A risk factor for falls is:
    • a) ages from 6 to 16.
    • b) confusion.
    • c) aspirin.
    • d) high toilet seats.
  • 17. Elopement occurs when patients leave the hospital or nursing home without staff knowledge. Which of the following disorder is a risk factor of elopement?
    • a) Alzheimer’s disease
    • b) Heart disease
    • c) Cerebral palsy
    • d) Autism
  • 18. An environmental factor that places people at risk for falls is:
    • a) bright lights.
    • b) wet floors.
    • c) confusion.
    • d) old age.
  • 19. Call bells:
    • a) are a safety hazard.
    • b) must be answered promptly.
    • c) are no longer being used.
    • d) replace the need for alarms.
  • 20. Your patient is on complete bed rest and needs complete care. This patient’s bed should be:
    • a) in the high position at all times because this prevents back injuries.
    • b) in any position because this person is not at risk for falls.
    • c) always in the low position to prevent falls.
    • d) always in the low position unless direct care is being given.
  • 21. Which food safety rule is correct?
    • a) Canned food is safe for only 2 years.
    • b) Canned food is safe for only 3 years.
    • c) Refrigerator temperature must be cooler than 41 degrees F.
    • d) Refrigerator temperature must be cooler than 45 degrees F.
  • 22. Heat and cold applications:
    • a) are harmless when used on intact skin.
    • b) do not cause tissue damage.
    • c) can cause tissue damage.
    • d) are only done by physical therapists.
  • 23. Agitated behavior can be prevented by:
    • a) identifying and eliminating triggers.
    • b) restraining the patient.
    • c) using sleeping pills.
    • d) isolating the patient.
  • 24. Passive range of motion (ROM) is done:
    • a) only by physical therapists.
    • b) with patients who are active.
    • c) for patients who can’t move on their own.
    • d) For all patients.
  • 25. What does bid mean?
    • a) Between meals
    • b) Before meals
    • c) Twice a day
    • d) Three times a day
  • 26. Your patient has right sided weakness as a result of a CVA. You are going to transfer the patient from the bed to a chair. Where should the chair be placed?
    • a) At the top of the bed on the patient’s right side
    • b) At the top of the bed on the patient’s left side
    • c) At the bottom of the bed on the patient’s right side
    • d) At the bottom of the bed on the patient’s left side
  • 27. Back rubs:
    • a) provide comfort and relaxation.
    • b) are NOT done by CNAs.
    • c) should be done with cool lotion.
    • d) are done with alcohol.
  • 28. You are caring for a patient who is in a coma. Which of these statements about coma patients is true?
    • a) They do not hear anything.
    • b) They will never recover.
    • c) They must be turned at least q 2 hours.
    • d) They have no nutritional needs.
  • 29. Mr. T is a 76 year old patient that has a swallowing problem. You will most likely give this patient:
    • a) water and other clear fluids.
    • b) juice and flavored ices.
    • c) tea and carbonated soda.
    • d) honey thickness fluids.
  • 30. The normal pulse rate for an infant is:
    • a) 60 to 80/min
    • b) 80 to 100/min
    • c) 100 -160/min
    • d) 120 to 150/min
  • 31. The preferred temperature route for an infant is the _______ method.
    • a) oral
    • a) oral
    • c) axillary
    • d) groin
  • 32. Daily weights are done:
    • a) in the morning.
    • b) in the evening.
    • c) the same time each day.
    • c) the same time each day.
  • 33. You are taking blood pressures for a group of patients. The first sound that you hear is:
    • a) systole.
    • b) diastole.
    • c) tinnitus.
    • d) murmur.
  • 34. The vital sign that is easiest for a patient to consciously control is:
    • a) blood pressure.
    • b) pulse.
    • c) respiratory rate.
    • d) temperature.
  • 35. Which of the following patient observations must be reported to the nurse?
    • a) Your preschool patient is not drinking at least 30 ounces of milk each day.
    • b) Your elderly homecare patient reports to you that they had fallen last week.
    • c) Your teenage patient, in a group home, is more interested in peers than patients.
    • d) Your toddler patient is striving for autonomy and doing things on his own.
  • 36. One of the musculoskeletal hazards of bed rest and immobility is:
    • a) high calcium in the bones.
    • b) joint contractures.
    • c) pneumonia.
    • d) sensory losses.
  • 37. Which intervention can prevent contractures?
    • a) Heat applications
    • b) Using the lateral position
    • c) Turning and repositioning q 4 h
    • d) Range of motion exercises
  • 38. Your patient is blind and not able to see their food items on the plate. Otherwise, the person is physically well and without any other emotional problems. You should:
    • a) feed the patient because they cannot see the food.
    • b) ask the nurse to ask the MD for tube feedings.
    • c) tell the patient where each item on the plate is.
    • d) place the person in a restorative dining program.
  • 39. The best way to manage disturbed behavior is to:
    • a) prevent it.
    • b) give medicines for it.
    • c) restrain the person.
    • d) lock the person in their room.
  • 40. Which statement about spiritual needs is true?
    • a) Almost all people are religious and churchgoing.
    • b) Religion and spirituality are the same.
    • c) CNAs should pray with all their patients.
    • d) Spiritual needs and beliefs vary among people.
  • 41. Which is an example of oral communication?
    • a) A song
    • b) A book
    • c) A smile
    • d) A handshake
  • 42. Which is an appropriate part of communication?
    • a) Quick information and instructions
    • b) Speaking only in English
    • c) Silence
    • d) Probing questions
  • 43. Which is NOT an acceptable part of communication?
    • a) Touch
    • b) Judgments
    • c) Silence
    • d) Close ended questions
  • 44. Which type of question gives the CNA the most information?
    • a) Open ended questions
    • b) Close ended questions
    • c) Yes or no questions
    • d) Complex, technical questions
  • 45. Which is most helpful to a person who cannot speak because they have a tube in their throat?
    • a) A story board
    • b) A calendar
    • c) Eyeglasses
    • d) Paper and pencil
  • 46. Autonomy is a person’s right to:
    • a) make their own decisions.
    • b) a fair and accurate bill.
    • c) free care and medicine.
    • d) a patient advocate.
  • 47. Patients have a right to how much information about their health problems and their treatments?
    • a) Only enough so they can comply with care
    • b) A small amount so they do not get nervous
    • c) A moderate amount unless they are old
    • d) They have a right to ALL of the information
  • 48. If a person chooses to not eat or drink, the CNA must:
    • a) force them to eat and drink.
    • b) trick them into food and water.
    • c) respect their choice.
    • d) scold them about this.
  • 49. Your patient asks you if they have cancer. What should you do?
    • a) Report this question to the nurse.
    • b) Tell them not to worry about it.
    • c) Call the patient’s daughter.
    • d) Tell them to try to go to sleep.
  • 50. Advance directives:
    • a) must be done by all patients.
    • b) are done only when the person is dying.
    • c) are done by family members.
    • d) can be done at any time by the patient.
    By Catherine Kaufman

Answer Key

1. D 2. C 3. C 4. A 5. B 6. B 7. C 8. D 9. A 10. B
11. A 12. B 13. D 14. C 15. D 16. B 17. A 18. B 19. B 20. D
21. C 22. C 23. A 24. C 25. C 26. B 27. A 28. C 29. D 30. C
31. B 32. C 33. A 34. C 35. B 36. B 37. D 38. C 39. A 40. D
41. A 42. C 43. B 44. A 45. D 46. A 47. D 48. C 49. A 50. D